| jigherardini |
| (recently joined) |
| 06/02/11 10:14 AM |
two divorce decrees
|
This is a really long complicated story and my husband I really need help.
In 2003 my husbands ex left and took his son with her. After months of not being able to find them he was trying to get on with his life while still searching for his son. He filed for a divorce in the state of Texas which is where they had lived and it was granted and gave joint custody to him and his ex. He continued looking but never got the law involved. A couple years ago we got we got a notice of our taxes being withheld by the state of Oklahoma (this was not all bad because now we had an idea of where his son was). We made a couple calls and found out that his ex filed for a divorce in Oklahoma in 2005 (two years after the divorce in Texas) and it was granted and child support had been ordered. We sent them proof of the Texas divorce and they took the lien off our taxes. Since then we have been trying to get in touch with his son and start child support so we can have contact. Now they are saying that they “Are going with the Oklahoma divorce decree” … My question … How can that decree even be legal or binding when the Texas decree was issued two years prior? How do we contest that divorce do we file with Texas or Oklahoma?