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Thanks for the input. The state in question is California. Wouldn't he (the ex) have to supply some sort of evidence as to the property was purchased as an investment? It was purchased as a home in which to raise kids, not as a speculative real estate investment. At what point does ones inheritance override community property laws? I think that an aggressive attorney could argue that the house was not originally purchased as an investment, but rather to raise a family. Any additional thoughts on this? Thanks! m |