cherilita
recently joined
Reged: 03/29/07
Posts: 1
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I was divorced three years ago. Ex talked me into doing everything without an attorney. In the decree, it states ..."wife shall remain in the marital home." It says nothing else about the house; other property, a rental house, was to be sold and the profits split 50-50. Also, it states that no alimony and no child support would be paid. Our two sons stayed with me, although he was supposed to get custody of one by decree; he didn't want him and sent him home to me and has been paying me about $1200/month. His name and mine are on the deed to our home (still). Does the wording in the decree mean that I have full ownership?
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Spring
Carpal \'Tunnel

Reged: 06/02/04
Posts: 7972
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No. The decree only states you stay in the home. His name is on title, so he is also the owner.
-------------------- Never consider the possibility of failure; as long as you persist, you will be successful.
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