I had an agreement (oral) with my ex that I would pay half of a credit card bill and he would pay half. We actually laid out a payment schedule, as well as some extra money (it was to be paid to him by his employer for moving, but I was the one who moved, and let him use my truck weight, rental, etc, so agreed the amount paid would be split and paid all directly to the card). Anyway, I made $400 in payments, then he became angry (he hadn't made any payments) and started pulling the monthly payment out of child support saying he would pay it, not me. Well, he didn't, and after 8 months, I filed for a wage garnishment (he was also using child support to 'keep me in line' by threatening to not pay every time he got angry) and filed a $1600 past due amount with the court. The court ordered the garnishment, granted a judgement in my favor for $1600. In the meantime, the garnishment went through, and he sent a partial check leading to an overpayment. I did not send it back but had it applied against hte 1600 judgement.
Now that I was getting the full amount of child support, I made another payment online to the bill, he became angry, and changed the account info so I could not access it. I attempted to pay directly, but I would have to use cash, he had the account number changed, and told them to note the account not to accept payments from anyone but him (it was only in his name, but I was an authorized user, hence why I agreed to pay). So basically, he eliminated any way for me to pay.
We mediated, reached an agreement for an amount that i would pay directly. He mediated by phone, and never bothered to sign and return the agreement, so it never became a court order. He then paid the entire card amount, so it has a zero balance, and two years later decided to force me to abide by the mediation agreement. Found out it wasn't valid (I have made no more payments due to his blocking me from the account) and is having a cow, blaming it all on me, of course.
Anyway, he now wants an agreement made up (we are already back in court for other issues, he wants this done too) that I will pay my remaining share (right around $1000) directly to him since he has paid off the credit card.
My question...what are the odds of this happening? He is by far more well off financially, ratio is 13/87 percentage wise. Given that he intentionally blocked me from paying the account directly because he wanted me to send him the money instead (which I did once, but stopped because he wasn't putting it on the card, and said that I would have to keep paying him until balance was zero, not just till my half was paid). But now, he failed to allow me to pay, failed to use money I gave him for the card as it was intended, failed to sign the mediation agreement he pushed for, and now has paid the balance to zero where it has been for two years. To top it off, our divorce papers just say both parents will contribute to the credit card, it doesn't say anything at all about amounts, percentages, anything. So, I feel that i have contributed. Since I made efforts to pay and he blocked those efforts and then payed the card off on his own, that is not my fault, it is his, and I don't think I need to reimburse him.
I hope I didn't lose anyone:) And before anyone gets mad about me trying to get over on him, keep in mind that I declined to take part of his 401k, his military retirement, and spousal support even though the judge tried to convince me. I also have never billed him for his portion of uninsured dental and medical, and have always paid half of transportation costs for them to visit him, rather than the 13% ordered. Basically, he pays his child support and i pay for everything the kids need...even down to getting enough Rx refills to send for summer visits so he doesn't have to get a refill on that, all clothes, all extra curriculars, all school supplies, fees, pictures, everything.
Thanks for any input!!