M5's husband makes $30,000 a year. Out of that, he has to pay all Federal, state, local, etc. taxes. Then, he also has to pay CS along with medical insurance.
So, lets say after all of that, he has $22,000 a year to support M5 and their child.
According to the CO, M5's husband has agreed to pay extra activities that are MUTUALLY agreed upon.
Now we have BM, who at one point was working and making $24,000 a year. Her new hubby was not working, so no income was coming in.
New hubby got a $2.3 million settlement. Let's say that after taxes, attorney fees, etc., that the amount is now $1.5 million. Yes, it is new hubby's money BUT BM is now benefiting also by way of new house, RV, boat and LOTS of extra money available to do what she wants, assuming new hubby is allowing it (and it appears he is allowing it). It is so much money, that now she can quit working. It also allows her to sign children up for anything and everything.
And, she does because she knows that is one way to bankrupt her ex and "punish" him. So, we sign kids up for every expensive sport available and bill ex half without asking permission. When we ask permission, he says no, I can't afford it. We take kids to chiroquack 3 days a week, even though there is NO insurance coverage or apparently any need (do normal people do that)???
So, now, instead of having $22,000 to support his family, we may be down to $18,000 or even less to support 3 people.
So, BM decides to throw a little fit and take ex to court because he isn't paying 1/2 for sports and chiro - even though per their CO, they have to MUTUALLY agree.
Then, we get to the braces - BM pays the entire bill (remember she has no income) and bills ex for 1/2 and wants payment in 30 days.
Very easy to sign children up for all sports, medical stuff, dental stuff - BM, who has NO INCOME, pays for these in cash and then expects payment in 30 days.
Tell me how any of that sounds fair or that part of hubby's assets and BM assets, shouldn't be counted for this part only.