After 20 years of marriage, its over. I understand Wa. is a 50/50 state but where does that leave me. My husband has all the assets therefor all the power. I had to leave with the shirt on my back and only make enough as a cleaning woman to survive. I can not afford the lawyer that he can. He has always had all the power and claimed that he would rather give his money to the lawyers than to see me with any of it. Yes he had many assets before we got married. I am not interested in any of them. but during our marriage he purchased a motel with his assets,which he put in both of our names and also a few other properties. I worked hard to make that motel a viable business and then we sold it. We did our taxes together and he used what money I put into withholding to offset his tax requirements. I was also no doubt liable for any debts on these properties that had my name on them. Yet when the motel sold he put all the motel payments into his account and gave me nothing. There were perhaps $450,000 in payments that went into his house, his shop, and other assets after paying off his initial down to purchace it plus interest. He and his lawyer now say I have fo rights to any of the appreciation of his house since we were married. They say that I am only entitled to half of the motel that was just again resold after we got it back via default. What happened to all that income from the previous sale? My question is: in the property division, would any of the income from the previous sale of the motel be reccognised as mine, and or the appreciation of the property that it went towards maintaining or enhancing.