How "no-fault" is a no-fault divorce? My stbx has had affairs/one-night-stands with literally dozens of women. He has used marital funds to take women on dates, get hotel rooms (local to our home), buy them gifts, etc. He moved out in March 2009 and began living with an 18 year old (he's 40) in June 2009. I began living with another (he's 46; I'm 41) in January 2010. From March 2009 until June 2009 our 7 y.o. S only stayed with him 2 nights (stbx did not request anymore than that). After the 18yo moved in I would not let S go there anymore because stbx still was trying to work things out with me and wanted to be able to stay at the house with us. Did not think S would understand daddy sleeping with mommy at home and then going to daddy's apartment and seeing daddy sleeping with gf who is his sister's age (yes I'm a bit jaded here). Anyway, will any or none of this matter in a no-fault state?